Lowe said:Set the bible aside for a moment, and consider it strictly on observable facts.
One is contrary to scripture. The other is not.
There were specific groups that the Jews were not allowed to intermarry in the Old Testament, but that was because of the pagan belief systems embraced by those groups. Not because of their skin color.
I don't mind a disagreement on the subject of gay marriage. I do mind the presumption that this disagreement is rooted in the same type of evil prejudice, akin to racism.
singlesix said:It is not contrary now, but 20 years ago scripture was used to argue against interracial marriage (of course this was in Louisiana). So did scripture change or interpretation? This the problem with using "scripture" consensus changes over time. IMO your statement about intermarrying is correct, but try saying that in La. 20 years ago.
Lowe0 said:Whether it's motivated by prejudice, scripture, or flipping a coin is irrelevant.
Lowe0 said:To put it another way, a good or bad idea is good or bad regardless of the motivation behind it. I'm not interested in the motivation. I'm only interested in the results.
What's the difference? (Gay vs. interracial marriage, that is, not Christians vs. racists.)
Whether it's motivated by prejudice, scripture, or flipping a coin is irrelevant. I didn't ask for the difference between believing that interracial marriage is wrong and believing gay marriage is wrong; I asked for the difference between interracial marriage and gay marriage.
To put it another way, a good or bad idea is good or bad regardless of the motivation behind it. I'm not interested in the motivation. I'm only interested in the results.
How's that forehead doing? Need an aspirin?
Actually, the question I was going to ask was "why should that make one legal and the other illegal?". Which leads to my next point...The difference between interracial marriage (presumably heterosexual) and gay marriage is the former is between opposite sexes and the latter is between same sexes. I'm not trying to be a smartass, but that's the answer to the question you asked. Probably, the question you meant to ask is what is the difference that makes one okay and the other not.
... whether something is moral isn't necessarily a reflection of whether it should or shouldn't be legal. The reason that interracial marriage and gay marriage are the same is that we don't have a clear reason, backed up with solid evidence, of why either is bad public policy. Without that clear reason, what justification is there for limiting gays' right to form a marriage contract?So here's my secular answer. Morality is subjective. People get to decide what they think is moral and not. They get to choose which standards determine morality, whether those standards are based on observable facts or written in a religious book and interpreted however. Neither you nor I have a legitimate place to read their book and tell them how to interpret it. So in that sense "One is contrary to the scripture. The other is not" is a perfectly adequate answer for the question you meant to ask.
Lowe0 said:... whether something is moral isn't necessarily a reflection of whether it should or shouldn't be legal. The reason that interracial marriage and gay marriage are the same is that we don't have a clear reason, backed up with solid evidence, of why either is bad public policy. Without that clear reason, what justification is there for limiting gays' right to form a marriage contract?
Actually, the question I was going to ask was "why should that make one legal and the other illegal?". Which leads to my next point...
... whether something is moral isn't necessarily a reflection of whether it should or shouldn't be legal. The reason that interracial marriage and gay marriage are the same is that we don't have a clear reason, backed up with solid evidence, of why either is bad public policy. Without that clear reason, what justification is there for limiting gays' right to form a marriage contract?
Why should scripture determine whether something is legal? Whose scripture should be authoritative, and why?
I don't think that it should. I haven't said that it should. I am saying that one is a simple prejudice and one is a Biblical imperative, and the implication that they are equivalent is intellectually dishonest.
Then why do we allow those who can't (or won't) procreate to marry? I'm certainly not hearing any calls from Huckabee or Cruz to have my child free marriage annulled.First of all, gays can form whatever contracts they want. Write a contract, see a lawyer, get it done. Nobody is denying them that right.
Marriage is a government construct, not a contract. It's a defined relationship that carries with it certain benefits that ought to have been provided by the private sector to begin with, but people believed that the husband/wife nuclear family provided better social structure and thus should be subsidized (in a sense) by the government. I don't agree with this subsidization, but it is what it is. And being a government construct and not a natural right (such as entering into a voluntary contract), it is going to be defined by the people who decide what provides the most social benefit.
Same question: then why aren't we attacking child free couples for destroying traditional marriage?If you really want to get down to it, I could probably assemble a lot of evidence demonstrating that gay marriage is not beneficial to society and should not be subsidized by the government. I could not do that for an interracial marriage. In order to do that for an interracial marriage you must begin with the premise that one race is inferior to another, and I do not subscribe to that philosophy. It is at least rationally and naturally possible to make the case that two men can not raise a child as well as a man and woman. The very premise of evolution operates under the assumption that nature selected that relationship as superior.
The subsidies come from having children, not from being married, as I'm reminded every April. (But I don't mind, because the taxes that pay for others' children to be educated keep them behind brick walls and therefore the hell away from me. If only we could have that year-round....)So if I did believe that the government should 'subsidize' certain 'beneficial' facets of our society, and I believed that gays rearing children is not one of them, I could reach the conclusion that gays should not be given the same marital subsidization that straight people receive - without any type of prejudice or hatred inherent in the racism brought up in that Time article.
Then why do we allow those who can't (or won't) procreate to marry? I'm certainly not hearing any calls from Huckabee or Cruz to have my child free marriage annulled.
Same question: then why aren't we attacking child free couples for destroying traditional marriage?
The subsidies come from having children, not from being married, as I'm reminded every April. (But I don't mind, because the taxes that pay for others' children to be educated keep them behind brick walls and therefore the hell away from me. If only we could have that year-round....)
Married filing jointly, which has different bracket rates, does not involve children.
They do have different brackets (and standard deductions), but on the other hand, every dollar of the spouse's income is taxed, at a minimum, at the rate of the highest dollar of the other spouse. Two earners, no kids, and if you live in a home that fits two instead of a 5-bedroom family home (and therefore don't have a huge mortgage deduction)? It's a wash at best.
Lowe0 said:Then why do we allow those who can't (or won't) procreate to marry? I'm certainly not hearing any calls from Huckabee or Cruz to have my child free marriage annulled.
Same question: then why aren't we attacking child free couples for destroying traditional marriage?
The point is not that child-free couples are destroying traditional marriage. The point is that many believe that a traditional marriage is the ideal circumstance for raising a child and that government subsidies of this marriage will encourage more people to raise their children as a married couple. I think that most of us probably agree that single-parent or broken families are not ideal.
Now the gay activists want to take this subsidy that is supposed to encourage a socially beneficial behavior and apply it to themselves when the tax-payers of Kentucky apparently feel that those marriages are not beneficial to society and should not qualify for those subsidies. And it is hard to argue, even from a secular standpoint, that there is any benefit for society for two men to marry each other.
This is the very reason that I do not support government social engineering. It doesn't work. It will always be abused. And someone's liberty will always be violated. No tax-payer should be forced to subsidize behavior that they find to be immoral, and yet that is what is happening.
Nevertheless, most of the reasoning behind the opposition to gay marriage is still not akin to racism. That has been my point all along.
Lowe0 said:What subsidy? As I pointed out, the tax benefits are all eaten up by every dollar of your spouse's income being taxed in your highest bracket (or higher).
Lowe0 said:And people have been paying for things they find objectionable for centuries! Conscientious objectors, for instance, don't get to opt out of DoD funding.
Lowe0 said:Finally, what you said wasn't that opposition to gay marriage isn't akin to racism. What you said is that comparing them is irrational. Which is why I'm drawing the obvious parallel between the two: that the arguments against both lacked a solid reason why the government should ban them, with evidence to support. I'm not asserting what your motivation is - I'm asserting what it is not.