I already covered that, but I'll circle back in detail. You're thinking of marriage licenses as being non-existent at best (no one has a right to a piece of paper with someone else's signature), or at worst, "shall-issue" - basically, the government acknowledging receipt of whatever private contract you've entered into, and filing it away in case it ever comes up in court. Sounds ideal, but it's not what we have in practice. What we have is a lot more like "may-issue" - for better or worse, the citizens have ceded to the government the capacity to determine who can and cannot marry. When we cede control over something to the government, and they choose a less permissive set of conditions for access to that thing, then that's a loss of freedom. For a historical example, your dictionary definition doesn't mention alcohol, but would you really argue that Prohibition didn't result in a loss of freedom?Let me turn the question on you: If there is no benefit, why does anyone care? Why the gigantic legal battles, propaganda, etc? If there is no benefit, how is anyone being 'discriminated' against?
I noticed that you ignored the part where I also established that there is no loss of freedom in this, by definition. Any comment?
Your other question - why? - raises the obvious equality angle - who wants to be less equal in the eyes of the law? - but also the more practical concern that marriages already have judicial precedent behind them. If I was being denied the right to visit my spouse in the hospital and participate in decisions regarding her care, then I'd need to call a lawyer and have them get me an injunction against the hospital. With a private contract, the judge would have to review it, along with whatever agreements my spouse had made with the hospital upon admission, etc. Then come the challenges: is the private contract authentic? Legally binding? The hospital's lawyers can drag their feet, and unless she regains consciousness and demands to be taken to another hospital, she and I will have no recourse.
Play that scenario out again with a marriage license instead of a contract. The judge will take one look at it and say "we let married couples participate in each other's care; let him in." If it's an emergency, and I pick the judge's poker buddy as a lawyer, I can probably get that injunction at 2 AM.
You have the burden of proof completely flipped around. If you think that gay marriage should be subsidized by tax dollars and government infrastructure, the burden lies on you to prove that it is socially beneficial.
You just said earlier in your post that you didn't know, or care, how gay marriage is subsidized. So you admit you don't know, yet insist that it's being subsidized anyway? Which is it?