I agree with the general concept, but if it would have left out "lawful right to violate you" it wouldn't need the cite. To me "legitimate" and "violate" are as subjective as "wrong". The extent to which I agree with the opinion depends on what the terms mean to me.
It seems to me that this simplistic syllogism would lead one to the conclusion that all government is illegitimate. I do not accept that.
Don't the logic geeks call that the undistributed middle fallacy?
[video=youtube;VK4kQF6Zu6w]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VK4kQF6Zu6w[/video]
A friend once said intelligence is inversely proportionate to the number of bumper stickers on your car.
That's cute 'n all, but that's a "feel the Bern" halfwit if I've ever seen one.