Morally, yes.Is there a right to life?
Morally, yes.Is there a right to life?
There are plenty of examples of moral foundations which exist in pretty much all cultures.
One example:
If it's a natural right to be free, then the Bible would condemn slavery completely. FULL STOP. Since the Bible sets out rules on how a master should treat his slaves, it seems kinda obvious that the moral right of liberty is a Biblically shared concept.
It’s not a conflation. Words can have different meanings. Homonyms aren’t a conflation. It’s whether you chose to refer to definition 1, or definition 2 in a dictionary. You’re arbitrarily constraining the choice to just one of them. So your “by definition...” declaration above depends on which definition you’re applying.
Again, if “rights” always mean inalienable, then saying inalienable is redundant and unnecessary. But what kind of rights are we talking about? The inalienable kind, not the kind HBIC’s grant.
The secular basis for natural rights is objective morality.
It is not an arbitrary constraint. It is an intentional differentiation of terms to clarify intent.
One of us is playing semantics, and it isn't me.
I honestly don’t see why you’re objecting so vigorously to my use of definitions that dictionaries and encyclopedias give me full permission to use. I gave the necessary clarification of intent by denoting natural rights from legal rights. I’m not “playing semantics. I’m just using the language as it’s defined.
I don't believe there are many, if any, moral truths that cross all times and peoples. Before just two hundred years ago (give or take) the idea of victorious soldiers raping, pillaging, and killing whomever they wanted to after a battle was considered completely acceptable.
In many cultures women, children, and others were considered as property. Killing another human being was completely acceptable was fine in many ancient cultures.
The only rule I can think of that is generally consistent across all cultures and religions is that it is always wrong to kill a social superior. That is, it is almost always wrong for a peasant to kill a noble. Beyond that, there is no moral consistency.
Note that I am NOT saying that these cultures did not have a set of morals and standards, only that those would be considered very alien to our modern western point of view.
Regards,
Doug
What makes morality objective, without the existence of God as moral lawmaker?
As long as we both understand that your use of "legal rights" is synonymous with my use of "privileges", that the nature of said "legal rights"/privileges is wholly distinct from the nature of natural rights, and that when I say "rights" I am referring to natural rights, then there is no problem.
Morality evolves. It was once moral justified to enslave people. Now it’s considered immoral in all Western societies. One moral foundation, perhaps the most ancient, is care and aversion to harm. That one is more tribal, but maybe less so in more advanced cultures.Indeed, the whole of human history would seem to refute the notion that mankind is capable of establishing consistent, universal, objective morality.
As long as we both understand that your use of "legal rights" is synonymous with my use of "privileges", that the nature of said "legal rights"/privileges is wholly distinct from the nature of natural rights, and that when I say "rights" I am referring to natural rights, then there is no problem.
Which is why it’s kinda helpful to say “natural rights” vs “legal rights”. Which I did upthread.Now you have finally answered the question about your definition of rights. Your definition is a subset of the dictionary definition. Using different definitions almost guarantees confusion.
There is nothing more basic than maintaining life.
Show me something more basic.
In the past couple of centuries about 20 to 25 % have.
It is far from ubiquitous let alone universally recognized.
How is that objective.