So, a homosexual is going to sue a baker, under the claim that the baker created a cake for the re-married couple, but not for the homosexual couple, and you think that a court (i.e. the State) deciding the validity of the defendant's religious beliefs is going to pass constitutional muster?
I'll have some of whatever you're smoking.
I don't think it necessarily stops at the state level first...
second... the courts have already ruled on what you call the constitutional muster in the past and failed a religion and it's historically accepted practice. See the peyote example previously cited.