Timjoebillybob
Grandmaster
- Feb 27, 2009
- 9,563
- 149
Officer Abramski v. United States: Abramski v. United States : SCOTUSblog
It's not illegal to buy someone else a gun with your own money. If they give you the money and you buy the gun for them, that could be illegal. If it's your wife, people probably won't care (other than asking, "How'd you get that deal going?") but if it's your brother-in-law you may face a bit more scrutiny, especially if he's a gangbanger and you know about it. Same BIL (provided he's not a gangbanger) says, "Hey man, I see Gander near you has an 870 I want. Care to pick it up for me and I'll pay you back later?" you're not really doing a straw purchase because he hasn't given you the money yet and you are the actual purchaser. Who knows, you may want to keep it after all. But if you walk in the store and tell the clerk, "I'm picking this up for my brother who's going to pay me back later." you may run into some issues. If you keep your trap shut and buy the gun for yourself and then decide to sell it to your brother later you will have no issues. (Again, provided he's not a gangbanger and you're not buying it for him to commit crimes with and you're the actually purchaser for an amount of time.)
Please for the love of all that is holy read the above linked case. He would be the actual purchaser because you had a prior agreement to pick it up for him, no matter if you used your money for a period of time. The wife one is a bit stickier imo, do they generally consider their funds co-mingled, or do they have strict individual accounts? Did the money she give her husband come from a joint account, or her personal one?
What if I decide to keep the gun?
What was your original intent? Was it to for you to exchange the gun with him for money or other valuable goods or services? Then he is the purchaser and you committed a straw purchase as soon as you answered on the 4473 that you are the purchaser and paid/received it.
But you are selling a gun to someone that you know can not buy one from a licensed dealer.
Does the fact that he does not happen, at that moment, to have picture ID make him "ineligible" to do so, or does it simply mean that while eligible under the substantive law, he does not have a way to complete the procedure of buying from a licensed dealer?
That's what I was thinking. For instance let's say my wife gives me a ride to make a private purchase but I left my DL at home? Would it be illegal for the seller to sell it to me? I'm ineligible at that time. But not ineligible under substantive law.