Assuming the rights in the Constitution aren't granted by the US government, but presumably all humans are entitled to these rights by their Creator, then you have a point. To continue along this line of thought, the US deprived Osama of his due process rights as a human being by whacking him instead of bringing him to trial. Assuming conducting war is simply legal process by another name.Why stop there? Since our rights are inherent to our human-ness, aren't ALL people entitled due process before being assassinated? Even those of another country?
Why stop there? Since our rights are inherent to our human-ness, aren't ALL people entitled due process before being assassinated? Even those of another country?
Its pretty clear that you criticize just for the sake of criticizing.
Maybe he should have faded into the sunset 30 years ago and nobody would be talking about term limits at all.
Yes, if you renounce it and go through the legal process with the State Department. There is no evidence anywhere that Al-Awlaki did so.
lolNo, I call out blatent hypocrisy when I see it. Calling for term limits and then staying for another 20 years meets that definition.
Near as I can tell, our government has an area of responsibility, a jurisdiction. It extends to all nations, technically, but not to all people. Those rights are natural, given to all men by God, but the Constitution gives no stipulation that the U.S. and her courts are expected to protect any but her own citizens. The United States certainly should not violate the rights of others, but it is not required to give them a court hearing in the U.S. or under her laws if other nations have primary responsibility for them.
Natural rights to self-protection, or to the "common defense" permit us to kill foreigners when openly engaged in warfare if the nation in which they reside or the circumstances of their location and defenses do not permit their being arrested. We do, for example, take prisoners of war and provide opportunity to surrender even for avowed enemies provided they are not at that moment resisting their being accosted by virtue of firing artillery shells at our right flank. This is known to be extended to private individuals and even officers of the law when they arresting a suspect, though the officer's actions are usually given a more vigorous investigation than that of an individual solider on the battlefield.
TL;DR: The rights are independent of our nation, but their protection and enforcement are limited by necessity and the fact that interfering in another nation's governance would necessitate and overstepping into other nation's rights as sovereign countries independent of our rule. We ought to give the opportunity to surrender to justice and the courts and if they resist with deadly force (or threaten deadly harm to others, as with a threatened cell phone call to a bomb) blow them right into the lake of burning sulfur.
I also just noticed that Michael Savage (3rd most popular national radio show in the country) came out agreeing with Ron's position on this issue:
http://youtu.be/3XDxON6xXtg
Yeah...Oh, well, if Michael Savage agrees.....
I don't think anyone would cry foul if somebody like that was killed when actually taking up arms, in actual combat, on an actual battlefield. Without meeting any of those conditions, I would prefer it if that dangerous precedent was not set for future use. Finding a suspect in their home, allegedly writing emails, outside a warzone, and not charged with a crime is a different situation, in my opinion.A fair response. But I'm still waiting (though I admit it might have been addressed in one of the many other threads I've posted this question in an attempt to get someone to confront the contradiction) for someone to explain to me how he would suggest we handle a U.S. citizen that takes up arms against the U.S. in the army of a foreign country during conflict marked by the declaration of war. What about the blurred reality of war that isn't declared?
A fair response. But I'm still waiting (though I admit it might have been addressed in one of the many other threads I've posted this question in an attempt to get someone to confront the contradiction) for someone to explain to me how he would suggest we handle a U.S. citizen that takes up arms against the U.S. in the army of a foreign country during conflict marked by the declaration of war. What about the blurred reality of war that isn't declared?
It's not that I don't agree with the premise that the U.S. has a responsibility towards it's citizens. It's that I don't believe the "due process" necessarily involves civilian courts. The Constitution doesn't define it that way (to my knowledge). So why are we always knee-jerking to that particular fallback position? The reality is that there are situations that don't fit the neat and tidy compartments classical liberals want to put everything in. The real world is messy and most circumstances come with a lot of overlap. And the position that all U.S. citizens be granted civilian trials in civilian courts is tantamount to legal zero tolerance.
(Most of Amendment V)No person shall be held to answer for a capital, or otherwise infamous crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a Grand Jury, except in cases arising in the land or naval forces, or in the Militia, when in actual service in time of War or public danger; nor shall any person be subject for the same offence to be twice put in jeopardy of life or limb; nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself, nor be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law...
SEC. 2. AUTHORIZATION FOR USE OF UNITED STATES ARMED FORCES.
(a) IN GENERAL- That the President is authorized to use all necessary and appropriate force against those nations, organizations, or persons he determines planned, authorized, committed, or aided the terrorist attacks that occurred on September 11, 2001, or harbored such organizations or persons, in order to prevent any future acts of international terrorism against the United States by such nations, organizations or persons.
When/if he has the balls to raise this issue in the Presidential debates, I will applaud him then ask him to lead by example and publicly state he will not rerun.Ron Paul was the first member of congress to propose term limits legislation in the House. He has done so multiple times starting as early as the 1970s. His son has recently co-sponsored a bill for term limits in the Senate.
I'm not even sure I fully agree with term limits, but the fact remains, Ron Paul has been all over this issue before it was mainstream.
This thread has now gone to the next level. What if everyone bought just one shotgun in the next 6 months? That is a poll I could believe in. 2000 shotguns in every state. Fast and Furious x 50.The shotgun thing cracked me up. I actually just picked up an 11-87 that hopefully I'll get out and use this weekend. When I feel good with the new gun I'll change my signature, but not until then.
Firstly, I don't see why we should be involved in a conflict to the extent of executing people for war crimes against our nation and yet not have full declaration of war. Pie in the sky, and I'll get to the rest but it needs to be said nonetheless.
Secondly, an American citizen who serves in a foreign military is an American citizen no longer declared war or not, as that is one of the few actions one can take to renounce American citizenship. However, Al Qaeda and the like are not armies, military forces or otherwise nationally based organizations that could be used to strip a citizen of his citizenship. One cannot be a citizen of Al Qaeda or any other terrorist organization, obviously. Unless he joined a military force of a specific nation and a terrorist cadre, I don't see how he could have lost his citizenship to that.
Ok, main point. To quote what I think is the pertinent Amendment to which you were referring:
(Most of Amendment V)
The second half first part I think can be reasonably removed: he was not serving in our active Militia, nor was he apart of our armed forces. Thus the bolded parts seem most important here. Obviously he was not given the chance to be indicted by a Grand Jury, so we are arguing (to get to your point) about what constitutes "due process of law".
At this point it behooves me to say that I'm an 19 year old farmer with an internet connection, not a lawyer or judge who can weigh in on Supreme Court decisions regarding precisely what constitutes due process. I will do what I can to make reasonable assumptions based upon standard legal proceedings. Obviously it is acknowledged that a criminal can be killed without standing trial in the event that he resists arrest in a violent and deadly manner. Already went into this in the last post, won't repeat for brevity's sake. This man was simply killed by a drone strike: no arrest attempt was made.
Furthermore, we do our best to arrest terrorists in this nation, and to give them a trial to pay for their crimes as the law demands. Even those who remained of the 9/11 crew were given trials rather than being executed. I am unable to find, in either explicit or general Constitutional principle or else a court precedent, a situation where "he's really hard to get to" justifies killing a terrorist instead of bringing him to face justice as our laws would demand of a man who committed the same crimes domestically. Others with more knowledge of the Supreme Court may be able to shed more light: my knowledge, such as it is, is insufficient to justify the action that was taken against this man.
Due process means giving him the opportunity to prove his innocence (however vanishingly small that chance may be) or to proudly declare his guilt provided he is able to be taken without serious risk of life or serious injury to the arresting personnel or any collateral damage (civilian death etc) occurring. Due process of law must logically involve law: he broke laws, to be sure, but the way by which we prove that so that he may be punished for it is to try him in a court that is appropriate to his status as military or civilian. It is the only way that we prove guilt in the eyes of the law: even a murderer caught red-handed would be given a day in court no matter how many witnesses saw him commit the act, provided he could be taken.
And while no court approved the killing of Mr. Awlaki, it is not accurate to say that he was targeted without due process. What due process requires depends on context. In a lawsuit brought last year that sought to prevent the government from targeting Mr. Awlaki, a federal judge ruled that in wartime the Constitution left it to the president and Congress, not the courts, to decide military targeting issues.
We'll just have to agree to disagree. Your murderer wasn't committing acts of war. There's a difference.
I am not naive enough to think that war is made only by nation-states with sanctioned uniformed bodies of men. War made upon us is still war, whether hired mercs, formal military units, or guerilla groups without a country. Whether your idealism is fueled by your political views or your youth or both, I know not. But I do know the world doesn't operate in the limited black and white picture you've painted. Even assuming the U.S. disengages from the multitude of foreign entanglements in which it does not belong, it doesn't change the fact that this man made war on the U.S., renounced his citizenship in word and deed, and contributed by his aid and assistance to the deaths of thousands of Americans.
Edit: I wanted to reference an article that provided precisely the court rulings you mentioned, but couldn't find it before I posted. I searched after I posted and found it. Here it is: http://www.nytimes.com/2011/10/01/opinion/a-just-act-of-war.html?_r=1
And the pertinent part: