Yeah, it shows that - even pretty early on - the Indians were viewed as "nations" or "quasi-nations." We joke about the gambling profits and things like that, but at least the effort to treat them as separate was there.
How about the Chinese? Dang, but that's REALLY awkward through today's lens. There's one part where they talk about how the Chinese don't bring over their women, so there aren't many Chinese kids born here. Because of that, they aren't worried about giving the kids citizenship, because there won' be very many of them.
Sorry, mate. I'm not sure what you're trying to say, either.
Plus, the historical definition of "jurisdiction" has some different layers to it. As in the debates above about Indians. At one point, a senator makes a rhetorical point that if one Indian kills another Indian, no one is really going to do anything about that. It would be up to their tribe to enforce whatever laws they wanted against those people. The tribe would have jurisdiction over the individuals and the crime. That is, they would enforce THEIR laws.
That's a fundamentally different approach than what we have now. But, it also, obliquely, gets to Houghs point. If one illegal Guatemalan kills another illegal Guatemalan in the US, we're still going to enforce US murder laws against the perpetrator. Guatemala doesn't have jurisdiction; the US courts do.
There's also a bit of an anachronistic historical issue: state citizenship. During the slavery era, different states - with some constitutional authority - had the right to determine what made someone a "citizen" of their state. But, only the federal government could determine what made a citizen of the US. That was a VERY important distinction that is now irrelevant.
It will be really interesting to see how a conservative court, a SCOTUS basically designed by Trump at this point, would handle this issue.
Heck, another layer of this is that it was the Republican party (basically) that pushed for the 14A.
I thought the parts about the Chinese were the most awkward parts of all, even worse than the slavery issues. However, that may just be because I'm more used to reading that type of language since I have a long interest in the Civil War.
Something I was thinking about overnight in regard to all of this, particularly in regards to interpreting the original intent of the amendment. There literally were no US immigration laws at the time it was written. There may have been state laws, but the first US immigration law was not passed until 1875. Thus, the very concept of an illegal immigrant didn't exist in US law at the time. How do you determine what the original intent of the amendment was in regards to an illegal immigrant when there literally was no such thing at the time when it was written?
That leads me to think that a conservative court is far more likely to use the simple text of the amendment since original intent seems like such a worm-hole.
The funny thing is when I started reading the link you posted I was hoping for guidance, regarding what was meant by the passage about the amendment not applying to foreigners or aliens. However, I not only haven't resolved that in my mind but, now I'm left wondering at this point how exactly they even defined a foreigner at the time? I'm guessing it had more to do with where your allegiance lies rather than your birthplace.
Are there previous USSC decisions that shed some light on these questions? Not that those previous ruling MUST be adhered to but has this question NEVER come to them since the 14th's ratification?