Timjoebillybob
Grandmaster
- Feb 27, 2009
- 9,567
- 149
Yes you do have representation, it's just it seems more people in your district disagree with what you want. Just because you are outvoted doesn't mean you don't have representation.I and 6 counties around me do not. The gerrymandering us with a big liberal county has destroyed our voice. So we do not have representation.
Yes I do. That would give true representation of the people.
Oh again there isn't enough if you go by historical precedence. However, you don't think that since the country ran on precedence for around 130 years it's constitutional.
The SCOTUS even uses precedence.
And no precedence does not mean the Constitution requires it. What the Constitution requires is a cap of no more than one representative per 30,000 people. It could be 1 per 30k, 1 per 300k, or 1 per 3 million. The previous precedent was Constitutional, but so is the current situation.
And yes SCOTUS uses precedence, they also overturn their own precedence.