heavyhitter1k
Marksman
- Nov 7, 2012
- 197
- 18
So, when you are in fear of your life, you are allowed to take lethal force for "self defense".
In the case of the 80 year old man who shot the pregnant woman, she fled and he shot her anyway...in the back.
My question becomes, I understand them fleeing basically makes it no longer self defense as they are no longer a threat, but I think it's kinda crappy if someone is beating you down or you are in a situation to a point of using a firearm, if they turn their back and run the instant the firearm is pulled you could be liable because it's not self defense?
I guess, I am just unclear at what point an aggressor no longer becomes a threat just because they suddenly become "outgunned" and turn to run or whatever.
Clarity?
In the case of the 80 year old man who shot the pregnant woman, she fled and he shot her anyway...in the back.
My question becomes, I understand them fleeing basically makes it no longer self defense as they are no longer a threat, but I think it's kinda crappy if someone is beating you down or you are in a situation to a point of using a firearm, if they turn their back and run the instant the firearm is pulled you could be liable because it's not self defense?
I guess, I am just unclear at what point an aggressor no longer becomes a threat just because they suddenly become "outgunned" and turn to run or whatever.
Clarity?